"In the simplest terms, the relatively meager gains the American economy has produced in recent years have largely flowed to a small segment of the most affluent households, leaving middle-class and poor households with slow-growing living standards."
For the record, not a single ONE of you has the slightest clue. Figures. "global economy...etc." What a phucking crock. Everything you folks are saying would result in an EQUAL effect on the rich and middle class. Admit it, you just can't stand the fact that the rich truly ARE benefitting hugely at the expense of EVERYONE ELSE, wealth and incomes skyrocketing while all others decline, and you can thank GW and his gifts of tax breaks for the wealthy for that. It might have been different if the wealthy did something with the money aside from counting it. Man, what it must be like to pay less than 15% in taxes...you pretty much have to be born of significant wealth to find out, but then THAT is what America is all about, isn't it.
Hurts don't it, the truth? Truth you can actually support with facts, that is, so easy with those "factual" opinions you guys like so much. You tea folk are simply suckup pawns for the ultra-rich, but you're too stupid to even know that you're sucking them. Trickle down is bullschitt, it always was and always will be. End of story.
Really. That's been going on for quite a while now, since Reagan even, and wouldn't the devaluation be applied the same, to the rich man's dollar just as the poor? What happened to the Fed's devaluation program in 2000 that caused median income to flatline for the next decade, while the incomes of the ultra-rich SOARED in comparison? How the phuck does the Fed's devaluation cause just a working man's dollar to decline, Einstein?