Absolute nonsense. As I have mentioned several times, I did a refi in April of last year. I was asked how much I wanted out. Of Course, at the time my FICA score was 837. I know that I can tap the equity in my house whenever I want. Of course, there is no mortgage on my primary residence. I took investment profits in 2000 and paid it off. At the time, I had 22 years left on that mortgage.
I would be willing to bet 500K that I can get cash out of my primary residence.
To be clear, the refi was on the summer home in which my equity was 70%. As a result of the refi, my payment was reduced 20%. That is 20% that I may now use for other investments using my buy and hold method that enabled me to retire at age 55.
Your post was simply ludicrous.
You can't even guess? Grammatical gender has little or nothing to do with sex, dummy.
Many languages have a neuter gender. Most older Indo-European languages in fact.
German for "the girl", for instance, is "das Maedchen", not "die Maedchen".
Latin also has three genders, while Romance languages have only two.
Not all Western Romance languages are just like the major ones. Some of the less widely spoken languages, like Sardinian, formed their definite articles in other ways, from different Latin origins.
It'd be kind of funny if a linguistics conference broke out in the middle of a thread on the Yahoo PFE board.
Definitely one for LANTRA: http://segate.sunet.se/cgi-bin/wa?A0=LANTRA-L
Alan is a blithering ignoramus.
Latin has no definite articles at all.
The Western Romance languages developed separate words before the noun as definite articles, while Eastern Romance languages (like Romanian) attach definite articles as suffixes, derived from Latin demonstrative pronouns.
There is little reason to assume that descent from Latin would lead to identical grammar in every case even in closely related Romance languages. And in fact, that is often not the case, as for instance in the French number system, derived from Celtic Gaulish, or the Portuguese names for days of the week.
Charty, you know as much about historical socio-linguistics (the study of how languages change as a function of national/societal interactions) as you do about the inner workings of PFE.
The word for night in Spanish and French happens to be feminine, yes, but nothing says that these languages should have such a 1:1 correspondence in anything, simply because the nations in which the languages developed are next-door neighbors. Neither nation shared exact migrations of similar peoples who added their linguistic wealth to the language mixtures in exactly the same way. In Spanish the word for left is izquierda; in French, the word is gauche.
Gauche's etymology: http://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/gauche
Izquierda's etymology: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wikipedia:Reference_desk/Archives/Language/2008_December_2#izquierda
If you read the information at the links, you'll see that the influences in the languages that cause the differences are attributable to things that are mutually non-existent in the context of the development of Spanish and French. If both languages consistently shared Latin as a consistent background, the supposition of gender match in common words might be valid.