It DIDN'T split last year. "On September 3, 2004, Gilead completed a two-for-one stock split effected in the form of a stock dividend, to stockholders of record as of August 12, 2004." (p. 63 of the 10-K).
It's been Gilead's history to execute a two for one stock split when the shares are solidly above $60. IMO, following the vote on May 10 to approve an increase in the number of authorized shares from 700,000,000 to 1,400,000,000 Gilead will (for a fourth time) split our shares.
I see the split was in 04 but tell me why would there be a debt sale to buy back stock at an overinflated price? Why did this company split stock to begin with? Is or was this a way to inflate the stock price so insiders sold at high prices? Something is not kosher here and IM staying away. My opinion only. I hate games