I do not understand the source of the 'dilution' in your statement, since no insider selling on record since Dec. 1999 and net Inst. buying for at least 3 quarters. In addition, Inst. hold most of the float and have for quite awhile; this stock suffers from too much inst. interest rather than too little. TCM alone owns 1/3 of the float. What is the factual basis of your statements??