I wondered about that, but have some issues with the explanation.
5/9/07 is the ex-dividend date. Payout is not until 6/18/07. Isn't changing the share price today just paying the dividend out of the share price? If so, then the corporation is "operating on the float" for the next six weeks.
Also, wouldn't a change in share price indicate a split rather than a dividend?
Perhaps I'm missing something obvious, but how can a stock close at one price Tuesday and open at another price Wednesday, unless there is an adjustment - that day - to the number of shares owned by all investors?
Again, please forgive my ignorance, but I'm truly confused.