When PHG takes 10% of the shares out of
circulation, does that mean that PHG now owns these shares
(and can give them later to their top-managment as
bonuses?)
So, I am still confused:
a) If PHG does not own
the shares that were bough back either, why do it at
all? Just increase the divident.
b) If PHG now owns
the shares, it looks like I have been robbed, or to
say the least, I now have to buy back my shares to
own the same fraction of the company with the cash
that I just received.
In either case, the
rational of the process escapes me, confuses me, and it
does not look as buyback to me. Also, if it looks
irrational, complicated and confusing, I fear the worst as
far as PHG's motives are concerned. I am sure they
have a good explanation.