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Corrections Corporation of America Message Board

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  • yieldseeker yieldseeker Jul 5, 2000 12:58 PM Flag

    bloomberg link

    Please explain what the "40% leased rates"
    valuation procedure involves. That wording sounds to me
    like a valuation based on 40% occupancy, which would
    normally be conservative. Even if a building is vacant, it
    should not be valued at zero, unless you know it will
    remain vacant forever. However, I assume that there is
    something else going on here, judging from the context of
    your message.

    As I have said repeatedly here, I
    am not assuming that book value, cash flow, or
    income statements coming out of PZN management are
    accurate, but they are all we have to go on. Your
    information is useful and I appreciate your constructive
    input.

 
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