The first trial was all oral: This is a randomized, double-blind, double dummy, multicenter Phase 3 study of oral TR-701 FA 200 mg once daily for 6 days versus oral Zyvox® (linezolid) 600 mg every 12 hours for 10 days for the treatment of ABSSSI in adults.
The second trial is IV for 2 days then switch to oral? Why the change? What is the common practice, do they typically treat with IV then move to oral, or does it depend on the severity, or how long the person will be in the hospital? Thanks in advance for any informed responses.
2nd trial is IV minimum of 1 day, then can switch to oral based on the investigators clinical opinion. IV therapy is typically the standard due to it's higher bioavailability and faster onset of action. Switch to oral can be made once the patient is stable.
makes sense, thanks. I assumed these patients are in the hospital, so why not just use the IV while they are in the hospital and then the pill when they leave. Good MB, thanks for the excellent responses!
I can't take the blame for any dip today since the company gave away some new options and the market is down some. So far, it's holding up well.