When reading the latest investor presentation the dividend is represented as .56 and .50. It is foot noted in #12. It says per share amounts reflect the 230 million share outstanding as of FEb 8th but not the pending shares or investment income resulting from the investment from the share issuance. There is no mention that these amounts are "modeling" or for illustrative purposes. I read this as once the spinpff is complete the dividends are most likely to be .56 and .50. Please let me know if this is an incorrect assumption and why so? I would appreciate any information on the point. Thanks.
I read it as that the baseline (and conservative) dividend or IRR is $1.06. Since those amounts do not reflect the most recent SPO and the related returns, the actual IRR should be/will be higher. My rough calculation is another 15 cents per share. Obviously, they will not distribute 100%.