I'm starting to think the two walnut pmts were not recorded as an exp.
I have to wonder how expense/payments made in one reporting period to help profits in another does anything else but come out in the wash? If the periods were combined as they are at year end, everything would be accurate if those combined figures were examined. Thus, using a longer reporting period, say one year, what is the difference/big deal as all expenses/profits would then be reported in full accuracy?
I ask this as I pay suppliers ahead of delivery all the time to get better pricing and the goodwill that engenders places me first in line for all deliveries, and especially those when I am in a pinch and needed RIGHT NOW. It is no more than good business practice for me that really pays off. Why so different with Diamond?