foe was at $10 before issuing more shares. Naturally, now it should be at $5 after 2x of dilution. But if the fund from selling the shares is used for paying down debt, isn't the valuation the same to shareholders? Any comments?
I don't think those extra shares are in play yet, are they? There hasn't been any big uptick in volume sine the offering. I know they were sold but I assumed the buyers are holding them for now. Would that be correct?