Where does it say in the filings or reorg docs that the value of the shares are tied to the value of LCC share price? all i can find is this which still confuses me lol
Market-Based Old Equity Allocation means, with respect to any Mandatory Conversion Date, the aggregate number of shares of New Common Stock that New AAG shall ratably distribute (or reserve for distribution) to the holders of Allowed AMR Equity Interests on such Mandatory Conversion Date, or as soon thereafter as reasonably practicable, in an aggregate amount equal to (i) the product of (a) 25% of the difference between the New Common Stock Allocation and the Initial Old Equity Allocation, multiplied by (b) the amount (if any) by which the VWAP for such Mandatory Conversion Date exceeds the Value Hurdle Price, all as multiplied by (c) the reciprocal of such VWAP, less (ii) the Shares in Excess of Cap for such Mandatory Conversion Date; provided, however, that in no event shall the number of shares distributed and/or reserved as described in this Section 1.148 with respect to any Mandatory Conversion Date be less than zero.
And you are right that it is not tied to LCC's stock value. Can you use that as a proxy? Parker stated in an sec filing that the AMR's contribution to LCC's eps will be accretive ... so will AAG make $3+ eps with synergies to come in 2015? If so, what will AAG trade for? ... Is it reasonable to assume close to what LCC is trading for ... ?