Actually, xxcalxx is correct and you are therefore wrong (or WRONG, as you would write it). If anyone who is long a certain stock puts in a limit order to sell, that number of shares is unavailable for shorting. If all longs did this, there could be no shorting. All you need to do is put a limit order to sell your shares at $200 or some ridiculously high number like that.
By the way, since a formal education does not appear to have been a part of your childhood, let me give you a little english lesson:
"Your" as in "your lack of intelligence" is spelled Y-O-U-R.
"You're" as in "you are an idiot" is what is called a contraction and is spelled Y-O-U-'-R-E.
learn before you trade freak your an idiot you moron this isnt a freaking english test you geek this is the real world and you need to face that fact that in the real you and others on this board are losin your a$$'s cause you refuse to listen to shorts again i am right and you are wrong call your freakin broker
the " Street " for 10 years in Mutual Funds, Margin, Performance Analytics, etc . . . No brokerage firm's Stock Loan department can loan out their clients shares if there is a limit order against them, no matter how ridiculously high that price may seem. This is to prevent exposure. Fact. Example for the slow (abby); I put a limit order to sell at $200 a share. My firm has lent these shares to another firm so a client of theirs can short it at $70. Now I want to sell my shares after a $130 one day pop. My firm has to then buy the shares on the open market or pray that all their clients don't want to sell on this beautiful $130 one day gain. The fact is that my firm would never have to buy the shares in the open market and eat the loss because they are prevented from lending the shares out when there's an existing order against them. Shot, score!