"if you assume that todays PPS will be the same at the 30th"
No. Before the 31st, at any point in time, the PPS does indeed reflect the dividend. Price appreciation or depreciation does not change the fact that the $1.75 is included in the price before the 31st.
"You and CWN600 definitly did not win the oscar for investing in stocks"
Totally irrelevant to what killertime42 said.
"If you sell today.... you assume that todays PPS will not go up anymore."
That too is totally irrelevant to what killertime42 said.
"I suggest that you and CWN600 do what you say to others and sell today your own shares"
He never said any such thing, which means I couldn't possibly have agreed to it.
jooo22, you have a lot of balls telling other people what to do when you can't even understand a simple statement of fact.
Exactly right. And that's the most difficult fact for most individual investors to grasp. The idea that a dividend (or distribution) is free money, though completely wrong, is blinding, I guess. I rarely try to explain it because people get even more #$%$ at me than when I tell them the ex-date is going to be the day after the payment date.
"i sold today my shares and I like to know what is going to happen if i want to buy them back BEFORE jan 31th??? can i still receive the $1.75 cashback or not."
Assuming you mean December 31st and not January 31st, yes. But be aware that you will not be paid the $1.75 until at least January 3rd, and probably not until a few days after that. It takes time for the payment to reach the rightful owner in this kind of distribution where the ex-date is after the record date.
Here's a very confusing complication that may apply to you. The shares you just sold -- if you bought them before Dec 9th, you will receive the $1.75 on Dec 30th (or maybe a day or two later, depending on your broker) but because you sold them before the 31st, that money will be taken out of your account a few days later and forwarded to the rightful owner. However, if you buy back the shares before the 31st, the $1.75 will go into your account on or about the 30th, then it will be withdrawn a few days later, then deposited back into your account within a couple days. Yes, it sounds strange but that's the way it works when you buy before the 9th, sell before the 31st and buy it back again before the 31st.
"It is right here - to share holders on record as of 12/16"
First, this distribution requires that the ex-date be December 24th, and it is the ex-date that determines who gets the distribution, not the record date.
Second, if this distribution were to follow normal dividend rules (which it doesn't), the last day to buy for the distribution would've been December 12th. The 17th has nothing to do with anything.
"last day to buy before dividend"
No, it's not, but thanks for demonstrating that you don't know what you're talking about. Makes it easy to skip over your posts in the future.
Hint: Tomorrow is not the ex-date. Tomorrow is the day after the record date, which is meaningless in determining who gets the distribution.
Be careful of dislocating a shoulder while patting yourself on the back.
(By the way, dipwad, I had to go into the details because at the time I explained to the board how this distribution was going to work, the ex-date hadn't yet been announced and no one believed it when I said it would likely be the day after the payment date.)
"the 30th we will see how the PPS reacts on the pay out of the dividend"
No, you'll see on the 31st.
"How can you get the div for stock bought on the payable date, which is 12/30?"
Haven't been paying attention, have you?
"I'm pretty sure you'd need to own it by the 30th - 3 days, meaning 12/26 because of the weekend."
Well, then you're both pretty sure and pretty wrong. First, ex-dates are real-time dates. The three day settlement period doesn't apply to ex-dates. At that very same site you copied and pasted from, it tells you that, and in bold print: "Note: The three day settlement period (T+3) does not apply to ex-dividend dates, as they are real-time dates - buy before the ex-date, you qualify for the dividend; buy on or after the ex-date, you don't qualify for the dividend."
Second, that very same site also explains how you get the div for stock bought on the payable date. Scroll down to part that explains the 25% rule.
sts_66, it's pretty difficult to prove others wrong when the site you use as your proof only proves that you're wrong. You have to read the whole thing.
"Why does everyone say the adjustment would take place the next day after the div payment?"
Because it is a fact.
"Why wouldn't it happen the day of the payment?"
Because the payment date is not the ex-date. The stock price adjustment happens on the ex-date because that is the first trading day that the right to receive the distribution does not trade with the stock. Therefore the stock, assuming everything else is equal, is worth exactly the amount of the distribution less than it was the day before the ex-date. Of course that doesn't mean the stock will trade at exactly the adjusted price at the open on the ex-date, and in most cases it doesn't, but usually fairly close.
"bought a thousand more on 12/9 (settlement 12/14)"
The settlement for a trade made on 12-9 would happen on 12-12, not 12-14.
"do I still get dividend for 2K if I hold through x date?"
You'd be holding 1,000 on the morning of the ex-date. Why would you even wonder if you'd get the distribution for 2,000 shares if you're holding only 1,000?
The answer is no.
"did I screw myself tax wise by not holding until new cost basis"
That all depends on what the stock price is come the 31st. Do you know for an absolute fact what that price will be?
"I am still trying to figure out which sounds more impressive"
Come on now, think it through! I'll give you a minute before I give you the answer.
The 14 foot pizza, of course.
How can anyone not know that?